Hypothetical situation:
A seller in another State ships a firearm he has sold to a buyer via his 01 FFL holder. The FFL holder notifies the buyer that the firearm has arrived. The buyer goes to the FFLs place of business ,inspects the firearm and decides he doesn't want it. No transfer has taken place and the FFL ships the firearm back to the seller. The buyer pays for the shipment plus whatever the FFL sees fit to charge him.
The receiving FFL is out nothing and it is the buyers responsibility to get his money back minus shipping expenses incurred by the seller.
Anything wrong with this scenario?
Jim
Nope as no transfer has taken place,(no 4473 or NICS check)at least as far as I can tell in 922(a)(2)(A).
The receiving FFL can-and sometime does,make up any rules he wants.
"I don't sell to Kalif" "I don't honor a C&R"and could well state he will not return a gun to a un licensed individual,as long as that is understood BEFORE the deal is made thats fine,then the buyer/seller can decide if they want to find another FFL.
